How much does "pronoia," in this sense, have in common with the clinical term? I think it was Nock or some commentator who characterized it thus (as infelicitous); "providence" seems adequate, to me, but I would almost like a theological definition of the term, as it were. It seems like a term that warrants greater emphasis and understanding...
In other words: Does "providence" adequately express the full meaning of "pronoia"?
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In other words: Does "providence" adequately express the full meaning of "pronoia"?